ഐഎഎസ് ചോദ്യങ്ങളും ഉത്തരങ്ങളും; പരിശീലിക്കാം, വിജയം നേടാം
ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ഏറ്റവും വലിയ മത്സര പരീക്ഷകളില്‍ ഒന്നാണ് സിവില്‍ സര്‍വ്വീസ് പരീക്ഷ. ഓരോ വര്‍ഷം കഴിയുമ്പോഴും കൂടുതല്‍ മത്സരാര്‍ത്ഥികള്‍ എത്തുന്നത് കൊണ്ട് തന്നെ ഏറെ കഠിനമായ പരിശ്രമം പരീക്ഷാവിജയത്തിന് ആവശ്യമാണ്. ഏഷ്യാനെറ്റ് ന്യൂസ് ഓണ്‍ലൈനും ഫോര്‍ച്യൂണ്‍ ഐഎഎസ് അക്കാദമിയും ചേര്‍ന്ന് നടത്തുന്ന ഐഎഎസ് മത്സര പരീക്ഷയുടെ ചോദ്യോത്തരങ്ങളാണ് ഇത്തവണ കരിയറില്‍.ആറ് വർഷം കൊണ്ട് ഇരുന്നൂറിലധികം സിവിൽ സർവ്വീസുകാരെ സംഭാവന ചെയ്ത സ്ഥാപനമാണ് തിരുവനന്തപുരത്തെ ഫോർച്യൂൺ അക്കാദമി. കഴിഞ്ഞ വർഷത്തെ സിവിൽ സർവ്വീസ് ഫലപ്രഖ്യാപനത്തിൽ മലയാളികൾ ഏറെ ആഘോഷിച്ച വിജയമായിരുന്നു ശ്രീധന്യയുടേത്. ശ്രീധന്യ ഫോർച്യൂൺ അക്കാദമി വിദ്യാർത്ഥിയായിരുന്നു.
1. The Central Information Commissioners are appointed by the president on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
2. The Commission submits an annual report to the President of India.
3. The commission is empowered to direct a public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3
SOLUTION
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The Central Information Commission was established under provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005. The commission is an independent non-constitutional body which consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 information commissioners. The members are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of-
Prime Minister (Chairperson)
Leader of Opposition in the LokSabha
Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The commission submits an annual report to the central government regarding the implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act. The government then places this report before each House of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: While conducting its inquiry, the commission has powers of a Civil Court. It can examine any record under control of a public authority and no record can be withheld from the commission on any grounds. The commission has the power to
direct a public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer when none exists.
1. The sector contributes to more than 60% total export in India
2. The percentage share of MSMEs in formal sector is almost 90%.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers:
The sector contributes to more than 60% total export in India
The percentage share of MSMEs in formal sector is almost 90%.
SOLUTION
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: MSMEs contribute around 6.11% of the manufacturing GDP and 24.63% of the GDP from service activities as well as 33.4% of India's manufacturing output. They have been able to provide employment to around 120 million persons and contribute around 45% of the overall exports from India. The sector has consistently maintained a growth rate of over 10%.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: About 20% of the MSMEs are based out of rural areas, which indicates the deployment of significant rural workforce in the MSME sector and is an exhibit to the importance of these enterprises in promoting sustainable and inclusive development as well as generating large scale employment, especially in the rural area. More than 90% of MSMEs operate in the informal sector
Why in News? RBI forms an expert committee to rejuvenate MSMEs.
Answers:
a) Chalukya
b) Chandela
c) Rashtrakuta
d) Vijayanagara
SOLUTION
Answer: (d)
In the Vittala Temple of Hampi, pavilions or mandapas that were meant to celebrate the marriages of dieties were known as Kalyan Mandapa.
Answers:
a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
SOLUTION
Answer: (b)
The Land reform constitutes the most important measures to improve the economic condition of agricultural tenants. The Land reforms program in post-Independence India has evolved through different phases and these includes Abolition of Intermediaries, Tenancy reforms, consolidation of holdings and determination of holdings per family, imposition of ceilings with fewer exemptions, and to distribute surplus land among landless peoples.
Hence Option (b) is correct.
Answers:
Which of the following is/are not the cause(s) of Nitrogen Pollution?
1. Emission from chemical fertilizers
2. Oil spillage in oceans
3. Burning of fossil fuels
4. Emission from livestock manure
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1,2 and 3 only
SOLUTION
Answer: (a)
Fertilizer consumption increased exponentially throughout the world which causes serious environmental problems. Fertilization may affect the accumulation of heavy metals in soil and plant system. Plants absorb the fertilizers through the soil, they can enter the food chain. Thus, fertilization leads to water, soil and air pollution. The amount of nitrate may increase in drinking water and rivers as a result of high levels of nitrogen fertilizer use.
When fossil fuels are burned, they release nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere, which contribute to the formation of smog and acid rain. The presence of excess nitrogen in the atmosphere in the form of nitrogen oxides or ammonia is deposited back onto land, where it washes into nearby water bodies. These excess nutrients contribute to pollution, harmful algal blooms and oxygen-deprived aquatic zones. Excess ammonia and low pH in these areas are toxic to aquatic organisms and affect their survival.
Livestock activities emit considerable amounts of Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous Oxide. Direct emission from livestock come from the respiratory process of all animals in the form of carbon dioxide. Ruminants emit methane as part of their digestive process which involve microbial fermentation of fibrous feeds. Animal manure also emits gases such as methane, nitrous oxides, ammonia and carbon dioxide depending on the way they are produced. Livestock also affect the carbon balance of land used for pasture and thus indirectly contribute to the release of large amount of carbon into atmosphere.
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Answers:
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were
2. holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
3. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
SOLUTION
Answer: (d)
In Mughal India, Jagirdars under Mansabdari system were assigned land in lieu of assigned duties towards the empire such as police, judicial, military; Zamindars too apart from revenue collecting duties had to render military duties and perform Khidmat such as rendering soldiers to fill the ranks of royal army at times of need and offer gifts at the royal court. Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion and demotion was a regular part of empire as loyalties towards Emperor were largely dependent on the rank of jagir/mansab held by a Noble; on the other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over revenue as their sway over rural society was overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal and patronage application of rituals.
Answers:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3
SOLUTION
Answer: (a)
The Charter Act of 1813 ended trade monopoly of East India company in India except for trade in tea and trade in China. Further it also asserted sovereignty of British Crown over the Indian territories held by company. However the Company was to retain the possession of territories and revenues for 20 years more without prejudice to British Crown.
Answers:
a) Prayagraj
b) Patna
c) Dhubri
d) Varanasi
SOLUTION
Answer: (d)
India’s first multi-modal terminal was inaugurated on the Ganga River in Varanasi and received the country’s first container cargo transported on inland waterways from Kolkata.
This is the first of the four multi-modal terminals being constructed on the National Waterway1 as part of the World Bank-aided Jal Marg Vikas project of the Inland Waterways Authority of India
Answers:
1. Nimbostratus : Rain cloud
2. Cumulus : Thundercloud
3. Cirrus: Dense, greyish, watery look
4. Stratocumulus : Rough, bumpy cloud
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 4
SOLUTION
Answer: (b)
Pairs 2 and 3 are INCORRECT.
Cumulus - fair weather cloud; vertical cloud with rounded top and horizontal base.
Cirrus - fibrous, fair weather, gives brilliant sunset.
Nimbostratus – Are dark low level clouds which are accompanied by light to moderate falling rainfall
Stratocumulus – They are the most common clouds on earth with well-defined base. They are indicators of a
change in weather and are present near a warm, cold or occluded front.
Answers:
a) Kanganahalli
b) Sanchi
c) Shahbazagrhi
d) Sohgaura
SOLUTION
Answer: (a)
Kanaganahalli in Karnataka is the site with an inscription in Brahmi script reading Ranyo Ashoka and a sculpture of King Ashoka.
