സിവില് സര്വ്വീസ്: ഇഷ്ടമുള്ളയാളെ വിവാഹം കഴിക്കാന് അവകാശം നല്കുന്ന ഇന്ത്യന് ഭരണഘടനയുടെ ആര്ട്ടിക്കിള് ?
ഇന്ത്യയില് ഏറ്റവും കടുത്ത മത്സരം നടക്കുന്ന പരീക്ഷകളിലൊന്നാണ് സിവില് സര്വ്വീസ് പരീക്ഷ. അതുകൊണ്ട് പരീക്ഷയ്ക്കിറങ്ങും മുമ്പ് നിരന്തരമുള്ള തയ്യാറെടുപ്പ് ആവശ്യമാണ്. ഫോര്ച്ച്യൂണ് അക്കാദമിയും ഏഷ്യാനെറ്റ് ഓണ്ലൈനും ചേര്ന്നൊരുക്കുന്ന സിവില് സര്വ്വീസ് പരീക്ഷാ ചോദ്യോത്തരങ്ങളുടെ നാലാമത്തെ ചോദ്യാവലിയാണിത്. സിവില് സര്വ്വീസില് മാത്രമല്ല, കേരള സിവില് സര്വ്വീസ് പരീക്ഷയെന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്ന കേരള അഡ്മിനിസ്ട്രേറ്റ് സര്വ്വീസ് (KAS) പരീക്ഷയ്ക്കുള്ള പഠനത്തിനും ഈ ചോദ്യോത്തരങ്ങള് നിങ്ങളെ സഹായിക്കും. മാത്രമല്ല മറ്റ് മത്സര പരീക്ഷകള്ക്കും. അതെ, ചെറിയ ചില കാല്വെപ്പുകള് വിലയ മുന്നേറ്റങ്ങള്ക്ക് കാരണമാകാം. വരൂ, നമ്മുക്കൊന്നിച്ച് മുന്നേറാം.
The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
1. A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
2. The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
3. If it is admitted, then the Speaker/Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate into the charges.
4. The committee should consist of (a) the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court, (b) a chief justice of a high court, (c) a distinguished jurist.
5. If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehavior or suffering from an incapacity, the House can take up the consideration of the motion.
6. After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an address is presented to the president for removal of the judge. Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.
Statement 2 is not correct: The constitution nowhere defines the term "incapacity and proved misbehavior".
Source: https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/explainer-removal-judges- office
Article142- Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court and unless as to discovery, etc. (1) The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe.
The right to marry is a component of right to life under art 21 of constitution of India which says, “No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”. in the context of right to marry, mention may be made of a few Indian cases.
Person, who suffering from venereal disease, even prior to the marriage cannot be said to have any right to marry so long as he is not fully cured of the disease.
In Lata Singh vs State of Uttar Pradesh 2006, the Supreme Court viewed the right to marry as a component of right to life under Art 21 of Indian Constitution the court observed that:
“This is a free and democratic country, and once a person becomes a major he or she can marry whosoever he/she likes. If the parents of the boy or girl do not approve of such inter- caste marriage the maximum they can do is that they can cut off social relations with the son or daughter, but they cannot give threats or commit or instigate acts of violence and cannot harass the person who undergoes such intercaste marriage”.
Source: http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/1001/Right-to- marry.html
Statement 1 & 2 is correct- The Environment Protection Act 1986, empowers the government of India to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever, provided that different standards for emission or discharge may be laid down under this clause from different sources having regard to the quality or composition of the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from such sources.
. Statement 1 is CORRECT. Carbon credit: A tradable certificate giving the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide equivalent. Carbon credit was part of Kyoto protocols outcome.
. Statement 2 is CORRECT.The Indian government in COP14 of UNCCDplans to setup 100 van dhan centres to make products from bamboo. Bamboo will help India earn carbon credits by creating a market for bamboo charcoal.
Source: Shankar environment, Chapter 21
Pairs 2 and 3 are INCORRECT. Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote sustainable development based on local community efforts and sound science. The programme of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971.
. Seshachalam - Andhra Pradesh
. Pachmarhi - Madhya Pradesh
. Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
. For the successful reduction of pollution levels in India, especially in Delhi, India has adopted various methods and policies. These include-
. Odd-even policy
. Graded response action plan
. Green fire crackers with green logo
. Shift to BS VI norms by April 2020
. Construction of Eastern and Western peripheral expressways in Delhi
. Closure of thermal pants
. Ban on pet coke
. The Hunter commission (Disorders Inquiry Committee), 1919 was constituted after the massacre at Jallianwalla Bagh, Amritsar and was composed of both British and Indian officials. The committee unanimously condemned General Dyer’s actions and published the following findings:
. The report stated that the lack of notice to disperse from the Bagh in the beginning was an error; the length of firing showed a grave error; Dyer’s motive of producing a sufficient moral effect was to be condemned; Dyer had overstepped the bounds of his authority; there had been no conspiracy to overthrow British rule in the Punjab.
. However, the Hunter Committee did not impose any penal or disciplinary action as Dyer’s actions were condoned by various superiors.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India
The government has notified fixed term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen. Hence, statement 1 is correct. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
. Statement 1 is INCORRECT. Credit co-operatives comprised 1,544 urban co-operative banks (UCBs) and 96,248 rural co-operative banks (end-March 20181), with the latter accounting for 64.7 percent of the total assets of cooperatives.
. Statement 2 is CORRECT. Currently, there is duality of control over State Co-operative Banks (StCBs)/ District Central Co-operative Banks (DCCBs) /Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) between the Registrar of Cooperative Societies (RCS) or the Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies (CRCS) and the Reserve Bank.
. While the mandates of the RCS/CRCS encompass incorporation, registration, management, recovery, audit, supersession of Board of Directors and liquidation, the Reserve Bank is invested with regulatory functions.
. The Reserve Bank is also entrusted with the responsibility of supervision of UCBs, entailing prescription of prudential norms for capital adequacy, income recognition, asset classification and provisioning, liquidity requirements and single/group exposure norms. In addition, it also helps in capacity building of employees and assist in implementation of IT infrastructure in UCBs.